The graph represents a comparison of cost growth between the US and non-US-OECD during three unique phases. What strikes me about the plot is that the growth in costs has been remarkably similar between the two groups for forty of the past fifty years, despite differences between the systems. This indicates to me that claims that changing the system alone will "bend the curve" are ill-founded.
That's not to say the US's system is ideal, or good, or fair, or efficient, or anything else. It's just to say that inasmuch as long term costs are driven by growth, and growth seems to be relatively similar between the US and non-US-OECD countries, simply changing the healthcare system is unlikely to control long-term costs.
What I really want to know is what happened during the 1980's. Up until that point, the US costs were fairly similar to most OECD countries (again, despite differences in the delivery systems) both in terms of absolute costs and growth. But during the 1980's, the US saw healthcare spending relative to GDP grow at a similar to the previous two decades, while other OECD countries saw no appreciable growth (on average). Does anyone have a thought on why that would be? Did something change in Europe in the late 70s early 80s? Or something in the US that caused us not to realize the relative gains our industrialized brethren enjoyed?
*Note: the downtick in the blue curve at 2010 is due to sparsity of reporting. Data isn't yet available from most countries, so the final data point is largely spurious.
**The set of OECD countries expanded throughout the period graphed. So each blue data point is the average of a slightly different set of countries.